Someone forward me this question. And with the following
passage.
Genesis 17:10
This is my covenant, which ye shall keep, between me and you and
thy seed after thee; Every man child among you shall be
circumcised.
Galatians 5:2-3
Behold, I Paul say unto you, that if ye be circumcised, Christ
shall profit you nothing.
He said there is contradictions.
And I argued with him like this. I told him that since Christ has
not revealed himself yet, the only way we can offer ourself to God
is through part of our body.
And then in
Hebrews 9:22
And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without
shedding of blood is no remission.
So that means, since circumcision is bloody, it is now void and
thats why baptism took precedence.
Can I say like that? Correct or not?
