I never say my translation is not corrupted. By definition, as
long as your are not reading the original manuscript in the
original language, your bible is corrupted.
I can give you one example since I was discussing Genesis one on
EH:
The Hebrew for Genesis 1:5 goes something like this - Vayikra
Elohim la-or yom velachoshech kara laylah vayehi-erev vayehi-voker
yom echad.
KJV claims to be a literal translation - And God called the light
Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the
morning were the first day.
Exactly how "yom echad" can become "first day" is beyond my
understanding. The literal translation of "echad" is one, as
evident in the Shema - Sh'ma Yisrael Adonai Elohaynu Adonai
Echad.
The KJV is uncorrupted? PUI ..
I don't think it is opinion anymore. We are not arguing whether
signing hillsongs is biblical. I am arguing for the KJV to be
placed on equal standing with other translations since all words
are filtered through the pens of the translators. And none of the
translators is god-inspired, this idea is unbiblical.
Once again, no-one is asking them to renounce Christ. Is this so
hard to understand?
Dude, this is a legal dispute before the law
courts...the question is defamation, not a doctrinal dispute before
an ecclesiastical court.
exactly. the question is defamation. The court is probably not
interested in doctrinal sparring between the lawyers and expert
witnesses. but this was what you wrote - Their defence is likely on the grounds of
fair comment on a doctrinal matter that has been the position of
the BP church for years.
Hypocritical? The BP church would probably say that on
the contrary, they have remained faithful to their doctrines. Those
who hold heretical views ought to be ex-communicated if they would
not repent.
Let me show you the fallacious logic:
The statement also said it was a 'very sad day' when a church
member took to suing his own pastors: 'Such an action is against
the clear teaching of Jesus Christ in God's Holy and perfect
Word.'
Questions:
1. Where is the basis that the KJV is the only and uncorrupted Word
found in God's Holy and perfect Word?
2. When did arguing otherwise (that the KJV is corrupted just like
any translation) become a heresy according to clear teaching of
Jesus Christ in God's Holy and perfect Word?
If they endorse your suggested reply, then they really are
hypocrites beyond any hypocrisy.
Again, I am not a BP and I do not share their doctrinal
views. But I will defend their right to hold those views within the
boundaries of the law. But maybe that is also too hard for you to
understand?
Please enlighen me how come BP can endorse something unbiblical
as their doctrine?
IMHO .. they have shot themselves on the foot.
If there is ever a verbal sparring on doctrine in court, I see how
they are going to get out of this mess.
It will be the Scopes Trial in reverse. 