Yes and No.
"is the Bible complete?"
complete in what sense?
if you say in everything and anything.......then No. The Bible is
not a book about everything and anything. It is primarily a book
about salvation that comes from the Lord Jesus Christ. It doesn't
explain to us how the pyramids of Egypt came to be, who my future
ex-wife will be 
, the cure for Aids and etc.
If you say about everything we need to know about salvation and
every doctrine, precepts, principles that pertain to Christian
living and sanctification .............then Yes it is
complete.
Jude 1:3 Beloved, when I gave all diligence to write unto you of
the common salvation, it was needful for me to write unto you, and
exhort [you] that ye should earnestly contend for
the
faith which was once
delivered unto the saints.
When Jude says 'contend for the FAITH........' he
was not speaking about our subjective faith in Christ for salvation
but rather he was talking about objective faith, THE BODY OF TRUTH
about Christianiaty.
Why are we certain of this interpretation? Look at the definite
article 'THE' before the word 'FAITH'. "The presence of the article
identifies and the absence of it qualifies" says the Greek
grammar.
Jude here is pointing to the the truths of the Christian FAITH not
our saving faith in Christ.
Then Jude proceeds to describe this FAITH [body of Christian truth
or revelation]...he says that this faith is 'ONCE
DELIVERED' unto the saints'
The word 'once' is actually the word hapax in Greek. Koine Greek
speakers when using this word usually means finality. So the
meaning could be "once and for all delivired to the saints."
What does Jude say about the Faith? it is once and for all
delivered to the saints.
Plus, the tense of the verb 'delivered' here is very significant.
The tense of the verb used by Jude here is the aorist tense. Aorist
tense in Greek speaks of an event happening as a single
whole.
So Jude is saying here that the Fatih is once and for all delivered
[as a single whole] to the saints.
thanks!!!!!!!!!!!!
