Dear Mad Hat,
Let's revisit your example where we wish to find ∫
1/x·1/ln x dx
Let u = 1/ln x and
dv/dx = 1/x. Then
du/dx = −1/(x(ln
x)2) and v = lnx.
The formula is ∫ u dv/dx dx =
uv − ∫ v du/dx dx
⇒ ∫ 1/x·1/ln
x dx = 1 + ∫
1/x·1/ln x dx
⇒ 0 = 1.
We have to be careful that when we integrate 1/x, it
should give ln |x|, so that
v = ln |x|,
uv = (ln |x|) / (ln x)
rather than 1.
Put simply, IBP may not work because
1. it leads back to the same integral (here we exclude
the e^x . sin x type of cases),
2. the function(s) may not be integrable,
3. the function(s) may not have nice graphical
behaviours.
Thanks!
Cheers,
Wen Shih
Ya WS, thanks for that insight. I was worried a bit about this
modulus issue but didn't think very hard about it. Looks now like
it might be a problem! Also this issue about whether the function
is differentiable/integrable everywhere is another problem! It's
quite deep for me man ... my math education is not that deep, as
you know. But I try! 