Actually I don't know who the "you" is. Probably not me...
"Leviticus 25:44) - "As for your male and female slaves whom you
may haveyou may acquire male and female slaves from the pagan
nations that are around you."
In the fallen world that mankind had created, slavery was a
reality. God permitted its existence and worked within its system.
Slaves were more domestic servants than oppressed field workers.
Slaves could be the captives of war (Num. 31:25-47), subjects of
debt to be worked off (2 Kings 4:1), born into slavery (Gen.
17:12-13), or entered into voluntarily (Exodus 21:5-6). In the
Ancient Near East, some slaves were able to own other slaves and
even conduct business and in Exodus 25:2 a slave was required to be
set free after six years of service. Though slavery carries a very
negative connotation here in America, it was not nearly as bad it
was here in the first 100 years of our nation's existence.
As I said above, God works within the fallen system to bring about
His will. Slavery was permitted by God and rules of treatment of
slaves were given so that they would not be mistreated. "
Source: http://www.carm.org/diff/Lev_25_44.htm
The problem is the scripture itself claims this rule is suppose
to act for eternity, not only for tis particular period. In the
past, I do not know if there is a real need to label people as
slaves and masters but it surely shows god do not support the idea
of fairness. He can save the people from egytians yet allow them to
treat other people almost the same way egytians treat them before.
Isn't tat a form of double standard ? god allowing the master to
nearly kill the slave, raping, selling or beating of them. Wat is
the difference between u and egytians.
BTW u seems to have failed to answer for the other practices like
stoning people to death if she is being raped.
However bear in mind Paul's writing to his young protege Timothy
on the character of leadership of which in 2 Timothy 3:2 states
A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife,
vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to
teach.
However 2 timothy says
1 This is a true saying, If a man desire the office of a bishop, he
desireth a good work
followed by looking at timothy 3:2, it only shows tat gays cannot
be a bishop, not gay is not allowed.
Another verse further down verse 12 states: Let the deacons be
the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own
houses well
This verse obviously put paid the notion of homosexuality as well
as bigamy which was practiced in the OT.
Tis appears to have been used wrongly again. It is still trying
to talk about the conditions to be a deacon, which is a cleric
ranking just below a priest in the Anglican, Eastern Orthodox, and
Roman Catholic churches. (from dictinary .com)
It never says tat normal folks r not allowed to be gays either.
Anyway it just says tat to be a good deacon or bishop, he must rule
his family well. Otherwise if he can't rule his life well, how can
he lead other people. However the issue now is not on whether
should gays be appointed as priest or deacons, but whether r they
allowed to be just normal church memebrs. BTW it never states tat
homo is a sin either.
I read from you note that you are genuinely seeking some
answers. Let me share that being a Christian does not guarantee
answers all the time. The Bible, while written for the masses
contains a huge amount of imagery and concepts that penetrates
through time, culture and race. So in order to grasp more of it,
one almost need to be an expert in the Jewish culture as well as
the world events in the OT.
I thought the bible can be applied to all people for all ages ?
Why have strange rules tat only work for certain people at certain
timeline ? R they being guineapigs to god incredulous laws ?
